问题
解答题
脱式计算,怎样简便就怎样算 ①(
②
③
④102×
⑤
⑥
|
答案
①(
1 |
2 |
1 |
4 |
1 |
3 |
1 |
6 |
=
1 |
4 |
1 |
6 |
=
9 |
12 |
2 |
12 |
=
11 |
12 |
②
3 |
4 |
9 |
10 |
5 |
14 |
7 |
15 |
=
3 |
4 |
10 |
9 |
5 |
14 |
7 |
15 |
=
5 |
6 |
1 |
6 |
=
2 |
3 |
③
8 |
9 |
3 |
4 |
7 |
16 |
1 |
4 |
=
8 |
9 |
3 |
4 |
3 |
16 |
=
8 |
9 |
9 |
16 |
=
1 |
2 |
④102×
98 |
101 |
=(101+1)×
98 |
101 |
=101×
98 |
101 |
98 |
101 |
=98+
98 |
101 |
=98
98 |
101 |
⑤
4 |
5 |
5 |
9 |
1 |
5 |
4 |
9 |
=(
4 |
5 |
1 |
5 |
5 |
9 |
4 |
9 |
=1-1,
=0;
⑥
8 |
13 |
1 |
7 |
5 |
13 |
=
8 |
13 |
1 |
7 |
1 |
7 |
5 |
13 |
=
1 |
7 |
5 |
13 |
8 |
13 |
=
1 |
7 |
=
1 |
7 |